Why are most philosophical works linguistic?

Solomon asked:

Why are most philosophical works linguistic or syntactic today?

Do you think that ontology has finished and is logically impossible?

Answer by Shaun Williamson

Well I don’t think they are, it really depends on which country you are in. Are you in the U.S.A. where W.V.O. Quine holds sway? Are you in Great Britain where the Empiricists prevail? Are you in Germany which is split in two. In the North the Romantic tradition which includes Nietzsche and Heidegger prevails. In the South the Analytic tradition inherited from the British and French empiricists prevails.

The southern German tradition emigrated to the U.S.A. in the 1930s to escape Hitler and displaced the native U.S. tradition, replacing it with logical positivism and W.V.O. Quine.

However philosophy is about truth, not about fashion or about trends. So you should not concern yourself with what the majority of philosophical works say. Publishing follows trends, philosophy is about truth.

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